Drawing Coins Without Replacement

Probability 9th-10th Grade
Problem
A bag contains 5 pennies, 10 nickels, and 4 dimes. You draw two coins without replacement. What is the probability you draw a nickel then a dime?

What This Problem Teaches

  • How "without replacement" changes probability calculations between draws
  • The multiplication rule for sequential events (conditional probability)
  • Why the total number of outcomes decreases after the first draw
  • Setting up organized probability tables to track changing conditions
  • Converting probability fractions to percentages for real-world interpretation

Let's Draw It

A bag contains 5 pennies, 10 nickels, and 4 dimes. You draw two coins without replacement. What is the probability...

Solution: Method 1 — Sequential Probability

When drawing without replacement, we treat this as a sequence of events where each draw affects the next. We need a nickel first and a dime second, so we multiply their probabilities.

Step 1 — Count the total coins

First, let's see what we're working with:

Total coins = 5 pennies + 10 nickels + 4 dimes = 19 coins

Step 2 — Find the probability of drawing a nickel first

On the first draw, we have 10 nickels out of 19 total coins:

P(nickel first) = 10/19

Step 3 — Adjust for the second draw

Here's the key insight: after removing one nickel, we have fewer coins total, but the number of dimes stays the same. The bag now contains:

• 5 pennies (unchanged) • 9 nickels (10 - 1 = 9) • 4 dimes (unchanged) • Total: 18 coins

Step 4 — Find the probability of drawing a dime second

On the second draw, we have 4 dimes out of the remaining 18 coins:

P(dime second | nickel first) = 4/18 = 2/9

Step 5 — Multiply for the combined probability

Since we need both events to happen in sequence, we multiply:

P(nickel then dime) = P(nickel first) × P(dime second | nickel first) = 10/19 × 4/18 = 40/342

Step 6 — Simplify the fraction

We can reduce this fraction by dividing both numerator and denominator by their greatest common factor of 2:

40/342 = 20/171

Solution: Method 2 — Organized Counting

Instead of thinking about conditional probability, we can count all possible ordered pairs and find what fraction are favorable.

Step 1 — Count all possible ordered pairs

For the first coin, we have 19 choices. For the second coin, we have 18 choices (since we don't replace the first). So there are:

Total ordered pairs = 19 × 18 = 342

Step 2 — Count favorable outcomes

A favorable outcome is picking any of the 10 nickels first, then any of the 4 dimes second:

Favorable outcomes = 10 × 4 = 40

Step 3 — Calculate the probability

Probability is favorable outcomes over total outcomes:

P(nickel then dime) = 40/342 = 20/171

This gives us the same answer as Method 1, confirming our result.

The probability is 20/171, which equals approximately 0.117 or 11.7%.

Verification

Let's check our answer makes sense by testing the boundary conditions and using an alternative approach.

Reasonableness check: We're looking for a specific sequence out of many possibilities, so the probability should be fairly small. 11.7% seems reasonable.

Alternative calculation: We can verify by computing the probability as a decimal directly:

P = (10/19) × (4/18) = (10 × 4)/(19 × 18) = 40/342 ≈ 0.1170

Fraction verification: Let's confirm our simplification is correct:

40/342 ÷ 2/2 = 20/171 20/171 ≈ 0.1170 ✓

All checks confirm our answer of 20/171.

Watch Out For These

✗ Using 19 for both draws:

P = (10/19) × (4/19) = 40/361

Why it's wrong: This treats the draws as if you replace the first coin, but the problem says "without replacement." After drawing one coin, only 18 remain.

✗ Reducing the number of dimes:

P = (10/19) × (3/18)

Why it's wrong: Drawing a nickel doesn't change the number of dimes in the bag. Only the total count and the nickel count change.

✗ Adding instead of multiplying:

P = 10/19 + 4/18 = (180 + 76)/342 = 256/342

Why it's wrong: Addition is for "or" situations (either event). Since we need a nickel and then a dime, we multiply.

The Pattern Behind This

This problem demonstrates the fundamental rule for sequential events without replacement:

General Formula: For drawing items A then B without replacement:

P(A then B) = (number of A's)/(total items) × (number of B's)/(total items - 1)

The key insight is that the denominator decreases by 1 for the second draw, but only the count of the first item type decreases in the numerator.

This pattern extends to any number of draws. For three draws without replacement, you'd multiply three fractions with denominators of n, n-1, and n-2.

The distinction between "with replacement" and "without replacement" is crucial in probability. Without replacement makes each subsequent draw dependent on what happened before, while with replacement keeps each draw independent.

How to Spot This Problem Type

Look for these key phrases that signal a sequential probability without replacement problem:

  • "Without replacement" or "don't put it back" — the classic signal
  • "Draw two [items]" or "select two [items]" from a collection
  • Questions asking for "A then B" or "first A, then B" (order matters)
  • Problems involving cards from a deck, balls from an urn, or items from a bag
  • Any scenario where taking one item changes the total for future draws

Be careful: Some problems will say "select two coins" without explicitly mentioning replacement. In most real-world scenarios, this means without replacement unless stated otherwise.

What If?

1Reverse the Order
A bag contains 5 pennies, 10 nickels, and 4 dimes. You draw two coins without replacement. What is the probability you draw a dime then a nickel?
Step 1 — Probability of drawing a dime first

Total coins = 19. Dimes = 4. So P(dime first) = 4/19

Step 2 — Probability of drawing a nickel second

After removing one dime, we have 18 coins total, with 10 nickels remaining. So P(nickel second | dime first) = 10/18 = 5/9

Step 3 — Multiply the probabilities

P(dime then nickel) = 4/19 × 10/18 = 40/342 = 20/171

Verification

Notice this equals the probability of nickel then dime! This makes sense: there are equally many ways to get each ordered pair.

Answer: 20/171 ≈ 11.7%

2Any Order
A bag contains 5 pennies, 10 nickels, and 4 dimes. You draw two coins without replacement. What is the probability you draw one nickel and one dime in any order?
Step 1 — Identify the favorable outcomes

We want either: (nickel then dime) OR (dime then nickel)

Step 2 — Calculate each probability

P(nickel then dime) = 10/19 × 4/18 = 40/342

P(dime then nickel) = 4/19 × 10/18 = 40/342

Step 3 — Add the probabilities

For "OR" situations, we add: P = 40/342 + 40/342 = 80/342 = 40/171

Verification

Alternative: count favorable ordered pairs (10×4 + 4×10 = 80) out of total pairs (19×18 = 342). Gets 80/342 = 40/171

Answer: 40/171 ≈ 23.4%

3With Replacement
A bag contains 5 pennies, 10 nickels, and 4 dimes. You draw two coins with replacement (put the first coin back before drawing the second). What is the probability you draw a nickel then a dime?
Step 1 — Probability of first draw

With 19 total coins and 10 nickels: P(nickel first) = 10/19

Step 2 — Probability of second draw

Since we replace the coin, we still have 19 total coins and 4 dimes: P(dime second) = 4/19

Step 3 — Multiply the independent probabilities

P(nickel then dime) = 10/19 × 4/19 = 40/361

Verification

40/361 ≈ 0.1108 or about 11.1%. This is slightly less than the without replacement case (11.7%) because the denominator stays larger.

Answer: 40/361 ≈ 11.1%

4Target Value
A bag contains 5 pennies, 10 nickels, and 4 dimes. You draw two coins without replacement. What is the probability that the total value of the two coins is exactly 15 cents?
Step 1 — Find combinations that total 15¢

Coin values: penny = 1¢, nickel = 5¢, dime = 10¢

Ways to make 15¢: nickel (5¢) + dime (10¢) = 15¢. That's the only way!

Step 2 — Calculate P(nickel then dime)

P(N then D) = 10/19 × 4/18 = 40/342

Step 3 — Calculate P(dime then nickel)

P(D then N) = 4/19 × 10/18 = 40/342

Step 4 — Add the probabilities

P(total = 15¢) = 40/342 + 40/342 = 80/342 = 40/171

Verification

Check: this is the same as "one nickel and one dime in any order" from Problem 2. ✓

Answer: 40/171 ≈ 23.4%

Frequently Asked Questions

How do you calculate probability without replacement?+
For sequential draws without replacement, multiply the probability of the first event by the conditional probability of the second event. The key difference is that the total number of items decreases for the second draw. In this example, we start with 19 coins, but after drawing one nickel, only 18 coins remain for the second draw.
What's the difference between 'with replacement' and 'without replacement'?+
With replacement means you put the first item back before drawing again, so the total stays the same. Without replacement means the first item is gone, reducing the total. Here, drawing without replacement means after taking one coin, we have 18 coins left instead of 19.
Why do you multiply probabilities instead of adding them?+
You multiply when you want both events to happen in sequence (AND logic). You add when you want either event to happen (OR logic). Since we need a nickel first AND a dime second, we multiply: (10/19) × (4/18) = 40/342.
NJ
Neven Jurkovic, PhD

Professor of Computer Science, Palo Alto College, Alamo Colleges District, San Antonio, TX

Developer of Algebrator

Contact

This solution was prepared with AI assistance and reviewed by Dr. Jurkovic for mathematical accuracy and pedagogical clarity.

2026-08-20